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Stuff Every Commercial Pilot Should Know

Study for the FAA Commercial Pilot Airplane (CAX) knowledge test.

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  1. What can a commercial pilot do that a private pilot generally cannot?
    Show the answer

    Be pilot in command carrying persons or property for pay. Section 61.133 lets a commercial pilot fly for compensation or hire, as long as the pilot is also qualified under the other rules that apply to that kind of flight. A private pilot has only narrow exceptions.

  2. A new commercial airplane pilot has no instrument rating. Passengers for hire cannot go cross-country beyond how far?
    Show the answer

    50 nautical miles. Without an instrument rating, a commercial airplane certificate carries a limitation. It bars carrying passengers for hire on cross-country flights over 50 nautical miles, and also bars carrying them at night.

  3. How does a commercial pilot remove the 50 nautical mile and night passenger limitation?
    Show the answer

    Meet the 61.65 instrument rating requirements for that class. The limitation comes off when the pilot meets the instrument rating requirements of 61.65 for the category and class on the commercial certificate. The same rule covers powered-lift certificates.

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  1. What can a commercial pilot do that a private pilot generally cannot?
  2. A new commercial airplane pilot has no instrument rating. Passengers for hire cannot go cross-country beyond how far?
  3. How does a commercial pilot remove the 50 nautical mile and night passenger limitation?
  4. What is the minimum age to be eligible for a commercial pilot certificate?
  5. What certificate must you hold before you can earn a commercial pilot certificate?
  6. Before the commercial knowledge test you need a logbook endorsement from whom?
  7. Under Part 61, how much total flight time does a commercial airplane applicant need?
  8. How many hours of pilot in command time must a commercial airplane applicant log?
  9. Of the 100 hours of PIC time, how many must be cross-country flight?
  10. A single-engine commercial applicant needs 10 hours of instrument training. How many must be in an airplane?
  11. How many hours of training in a complex, turbine or technically advanced airplane does a single-engine applicant need?
  12. A commercial applicant must fly a 2-hour daytime cross-country with a straight-line distance greater than what?
  13. Besides the daytime trip, which additional 2-hour cross-country is required for the commercial certificate?
  14. The commercial long solo cross-country must be at least how long in total distance, with how many landing points?
  15. The commercial solo block includes night VFR with 10 takeoffs and landings. Where must they happen?
  16. How much practical test prep with an instructor must a commercial applicant log in the 2 calendar months before the test?
  17. Outside a Part 142 course, how many simulator or training device hours can count toward the commercial total?
  18. Which three features make an airplane 'complex' under the FAA definition?
  19. How often is the training and logbook endorsement for flying a complex airplane required?
  20. An airplane is 'high performance' if its engine is rated at more than how much power?
  21. Special training applies to a pressurized aircraft whose service ceiling is above what altitude?
  22. What must you have before acting as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane?
  23. Which of these airplanes requires a type rating to act as pilot in command?
  24. Night currency for carrying passengers counts landings made during which period?
  25. What kind of landings must a tailwheel pilot make to meet the 90-day currency to carry passengers?
  26. For instrument currency, six approaches must be logged within the preceding how many calendar months?
  27. What is the minimum length of a flight review?
  28. What is the minimum medical certificate class to exercise commercial pilot privileges in an airplane?
  29. A second-class medical stays valid for commercial privileges until the end of which month after the exam month?
  30. A commercial pilot flying which type of aircraft does not need a medical certificate?
  31. Which FAA concept turns a for-hire operator into a common carrier?
  32. How many elements define a common carrier in FAA Advisory Circular 120-12A?
  33. Carrying for hire without holding out to the public is called what?
  34. AC 120-12A says an operator with how many contracts was held to be a common carrier?
  35. Which operation is listed as aerial work that Part 119 air carrier rules do not apply to?
  36. For most Part 135 VFR flights, how many total hours must a pilot in command have?
  37. For most Part 135 IFR operations, what total flight time must the pilot in command have?
  38. An aircraft carrying passengers for hire needs an annual or 100-hour inspection within how many hours of time in service?
  39. The 100-hour inspection limit may be exceeded by no more than how many hours while en route to the inspection?
  40. An annual inspection must have been completed within the preceding how many calendar months?
  41. Which certificate must be displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance, legible to passengers or crew?
  42. Besides your pilot certificate, what else must you carry when flying as a required pilot crewmember?
  43. Which equipment is required in addition for night VFR flight if the aircraft is operated for hire?
  44. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 and up to 14,000 feet, crew must use oxygen after how much time?
  45. Above what cabin pressure altitude must supplemental oxygen be provided to every occupant of the aircraft?
  46. Which airplanes must be operated with a designated second in command under 91.531?
  47. How many hours must pass after drinking alcohol before you may act as a crewmember?
  48. Aerobatic flight is prohibited below what altitude above the surface?
  49. Without parachutes, passengers can be carried only if you do not intentionally exceed what bank angle?
  50. Over a congested area, you must stay at least how high above the highest obstacle within 2,000 feet horizontally?
  51. A coordinated, level turn at 60 degrees of bank puts how much load factor on the airplane?
  52. An airplane stalls at 50 knots in level flight. At what speed could a 4 G pull-up stall it?
  53. What does a wing always have to do to stall?
  54. What is the most important first action to recover from an impending stall?
  55. Which list gives the four phases of a spin in order?
  56. What is the first step of the FAA's six-step spin recovery template?
  57. During a spin recovery, where do you put the ailerons?
  58. When an airplane gets lighter, what happens to its design maneuvering speed (VA)?
  59. Flying at or below VA protects the airplane against which control input?
  60. Which speed gives the most altitude gained in a given horizontal distance, useful for clearing an obstacle?
  61. A wing at one-tenth of its span above the ground has its induced drag cut by about how much?
  62. Wingtip vortices from another airplane are strongest when it is flying how?
  63. At what airspeeds does adverse yaw become more pronounced?
  64. At a high angle of attack, P-factor yaws a single-engine airplane with a clockwise prop (seen from behind) which way?
  65. The ACS asks for what angle of bank in a chandelle?
  66. A chandelle is mainly judged on which of these?
  67. What bank angle does the ACS call for at the steepest point of a lazy eight?
  68. In the commercial ACS, a steep turn is flown at about what bank angle?
  69. In a 60 degree bank steep turn, how many degrees before the entry heading should you begin rolling out?
  70. What is the maximum bank allowed at the steepest point of a steep spiral?
  71. In eights on pylons, the ACS says the bank must not exceed how many degrees?
  72. In eights on pylons, what determines the pivotal altitude?
  73. During eights on pylons, the line of sight appears to slide rearward past the pylon. Where is the airplane?
  74. For a commercial power-off 180 accuracy landing, where must you touch down?
  75. In a constant-speed propeller, what does the governor automatically adjust to keep rpm steady?
  76. With a constant-speed propeller, which control sets power output and which sets rpm?
  77. When increasing power with a constant-speed propeller, which do you increase first?
  78. Which engine setting combination can cause damaging detonation?
  79. A turbocharger gets its power from what?
  80. What is the critical altitude of a turbocharged engine?
  81. A manual-waste-gate turbo airplane descends with the waste gate left closed. What can happen?
  82. What is density altitude?
  83. How does a headwind help shorten the takeoff run?
  84. What does an upsloping runway do to the takeoff ground run?
  85. The service ceiling is the altitude where the airplane can no longer climb faster than what?
  86. How does moving the CG forward change an airplane's stall speed?
  87. In weight and balance, what is a moment?
  88. Cabin pressure altitude is between 12,500 and 14,000 feet MSL. After how long must the required crew use oxygen?
  89. Above 15,000 feet MSL cabin pressure altitude, who must be provided with supplemental oxygen?
  90. You get a headache and drowsiness while using the cabin heater. What should you do first?
  91. In flight you feel dizzy, tingly and anxious. What is the best fix if it is hyperventilation?
  92. How long should you wait before flying up to 8,000 feet after a dive that required a controlled ascent?
  93. Which stage of a thunderstorm's life is the most violent?
  94. What kind of fog forms when warm, moist air moves over a cold surface?
  95. Surface temperature is 85 F and the dew point is 71 F. About how high is the cloud base?
  96. What are the 5 Ps of the single-pilot risk check?
  97. What does the PAVE risk checklist cover?
  98. How strong can the downdraft in a microburst be?