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Stuff Every Instrument Pilot Should Know

Study for the FAA Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) knowledge test.

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  1. To act as PIC under IFR, how many instrument approaches must you log in the preceding 6 calendar months?
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    Six. 14 CFR 61.57(c) requires six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses with navigation systems. They must be logged within the preceding 6 calendar months.

  2. Your instrument currency has lapsed for more than six calendar months. How do you become current again?
    Show the answer

    Complete an instrument proficiency check. Once the 6-month window is missed by more than six months, 61.57(d) says the only way back is an instrument proficiency check (IPC), flown to the Instrument ACS standards.

  3. In a civil airplane under a view-limiting device, who must sit in the other control seat?
    Show the answer

    A safety pilot holding at least a private pilot certificate. Under 91.109(c), simulated instrument flight needs a qualified safety pilot in the other control seat who can see forward and to each side. The airplane also needs fully functioning dual controls.

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  1. To act as PIC under IFR, how many instrument approaches must you log in the preceding 6 calendar months?
  2. Your instrument currency has lapsed for more than six calendar months. How do you become current again?
  3. In a civil airplane under a view-limiting device, who must sit in the other control seat?
  4. How much cross-country time as pilot in command does 61.65 require for the instrument-airplane rating?
  5. Of the 40 hours of instrument time needed for the rating, how many must be received from an instrument instructor?
  6. Within how long before the instrument practical test must you have 3 hours of instrument flight training?
  7. The instrument rating cross-country flight for airplanes must cover how far along airways or ATC-directed routing?
  8. Under 91.167, after reaching the alternate, how long must an airplane be able to fly on remaining fuel at normal cruise?
  9. You can skip filing an alternate if forecasts show what ceiling and visibility from 1 hour before to 1 hour after arrival?
  10. A precision approach alternate with no special alternate minimums needs what forecast ceiling and visibility at your ETA?
  11. An alternate airport has no instrument approach. What must its forecast weather allow?
  12. To use a VOR for IFR navigation, how recently must it have been operationally checked?
  13. At a VOR test signal or ground checkpoint, what is the maximum permitted bearing error?
  14. When using an airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum permitted bearing error?
  15. Using only the approach lights as your visual reference, how low may you descend below DA?
  16. The authorized DA/DH or MDA for an approach is which of the available values?
  17. Below DA, which condition must you meet to continue to land?
  18. In which situation may you not make a procedure turn unless ATC clears you?
  19. At DA/DH, without the required visual conditions, what must you do?
  20. In IFR lost communications, which route does 91.185 put first?
  21. After radio failure in IFR conditions, which altitude must you fly for each route segment?
  22. You lose radios in IFR conditions, then reach VFR conditions. What does 91.185 say?
  23. After radio failure, when do you leave a clearance limit that is not an approach fix?
  24. Which instrument is required for IFR under 91.205(d) but not for day VFR?
  25. What kind of clock does 91.205(d) require for IFR flight?
  26. With no published minimum, how high above the highest obstacle within 4 nm must you fly IFR in designated mountainous areas?
  27. Using VOR navigation, within how far of the VOR may you fly below the MEA down to the MOCA?
  28. In uncontrolled airspace below 18,000 feet, which IFR cruising altitude fits a magnetic course of 090?
  29. Which two things must you have before operating IFR in controlled airspace?
  30. In IFR controlled airspace, which of these must you report without being asked?
  31. To operate in Class A airspace, you must be on which kind of flight plan and clearance?
  32. When is an ATC clearance required before entering Class B airspace?
  33. Standard departure obstacle clearance assumes a minimum climb gradient of what?
  34. What are the standard IFR takeoff minimums for aircraft with two engines or less?
  35. Can you fly an Obstacle Departure Procedure without an ATC clearance?
  36. ATC says 'cleared to the airport as filed.' What does that not include?
  37. Your IFR clearance has a void time and you miss it. What does that do?
  38. ATC says 'hold for release.' What does that mean?
  39. How long before your estimated departure time should you file an IFR flight plan?
  40. In a nonstandard holding pattern, which way do you turn?
  41. At or below 14,000 feet MSL, what is the standard inbound leg time in a hold?
  42. What is the maximum holding airspeed from 6,001 to 14,000 feet?
  43. In holding turns without RNAV guidance, what bank does the AIM call for?
  44. In a hold, when does outbound timing begin?
  45. What must you report on reaching a holding fix?
  46. When flying VFR-on-top, who is responsible for seeing and avoiding other aircraft?
  47. A contact approach requires at least how much flight visibility?
  48. ATC will not clear a visual approach unless reported weather is what ceiling and visibility?
  49. A Minimum Safe Altitude on an approach chart gives how much obstacle clearance?
  50. When may you deviate from an ATC clearance without asking first?
  51. Ice blocks a pitot tube's ram opening and its drain hole. What does the airspeed indicator do in a climb?
  52. Static ports ice over at 5,000 feet and you climb to 7,000. What does the altimeter show?
  53. Your static system is blocked. What does the vertical speed indicator show while you climb?
  54. Static ports block at 4,000 feet. You then climb well above that. How does the airspeed indicator read?
  55. Which gyro principle do attitude and heading indicators use, compared with turn coordinators?
  56. How often should you compare the heading indicator with the magnetic compass in flight?
  57. How fast does a standard rate turn change your heading?
  58. Accelerating on an east or west heading, what does the magnetic compass briefly show?
  59. Turning from east to north at 30 degrees latitude in a 15 degree bank, about when do you roll out by compass?
  60. On a very cold day with the correct altimeter setting, how does your true altitude compare with indicated?
  61. In level flight, which instrument is considered the primary pitch instrument?
  62. Which instrument cross-check error means failing to anticipate significant indications after an attitude change?
  63. A vacuum pump fails in an airplane with vacuum-driven gyros. Which instruments become unreliable?
  64. On a VOR indicator, how many degrees off course does each dot on the scale represent?
  65. Why does a VOR needle swing wildly when you fly right over the station?
  66. At the runway threshold, how wide is a localizer course from full-scale left to full-scale right?
  67. What glide path angle above horizontal is a typical ILS glideslope adjusted to?
  68. On a GPS approach, the CDI full-scale sensitivity narrows to what value at the final approach waypoint?
  69. What is the lowest decision altitude an LPV approach can have?
  70. What does RAIM let a GPS receiver do?
  71. A published Visual Descent Point applies to which types of RNAV minima?
  72. Flying an ILS back course inbound without reverse sensing, which way do you steer to correct?
  73. On a nonprecision approach chart, which symbol marks the final approach fix in the profile view?
  74. On a nonprecision approach you cannot identify the stepdown fix. What becomes your minimum altitude?
  75. A decision altitude (DA) on an approach chart is measured relative to what?
  76. About what descent rate holds a 3 degree glide path at 120 knots groundspeed?
  77. A Category B airplane circles to land at 145 knots. Whose circling minimums should it use?
  78. An airplane's approach category speed (VREF) is 125 knots. Which approach category is it?
  79. The height above touchdown for a normal CAT I precision approach is about how high?
  80. A ceiling of 700 feet and visibility of 2 statute miles falls in which flight category?
  81. Fog seldom forms when the temperature and dewpoint spread is wider than about what?
  82. In a METAR, FG means fog restricting visibility to less than what?
  83. How long a forecast period do most NWS TAFs cover?
  84. Which is correct for wind direction: a written METAR compared with an ATIS broadcast?
  85. Which description matches rime ice?
  86. You see ice pellets at the surface. What do they tell you about conditions aloft?
  87. Most aircraft icing is reported within which outside air temperature range?
  88. A thunderstorm cell moves from the towering cumulus stage to the mature stage when what happens?
  89. What is the arc-shaped leading edge of cool thunderstorm downdraft air called?
  90. You slowly enter a bank, then correct it abruptly. What does your inner ear tell you?
  91. Which illusion can make a pilot in a long steady turn pull back and tighten a descending spiral?
  92. After a long turn you look down at a chart and suddenly feel the airplane turning on another axis. What illusion is this?
  93. Rapid acceleration on takeoff in clouds can feel like what attitude?
  94. At roughly what altitude do judgment, memory and coordination begin to suffer from hypoxia?
  95. Hyperventilation under stress causes symptoms by blowing off too much of which gas?