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Stuff Every Sport Pilot Should Know

Study for the FAA Sport Pilot knowledge test, plus ultralight (Part 103) basics.

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  1. Which certificates must you hold to fly a legal Part 103 ultralight?
    Show the answer

    None, no pilot or medical certificate is required. Part 103 says ultralight operators need no aeronautical knowledge, age or experience requirements, and no airman or medical certificates. Training is still a very smart idea.

  2. A powered ultralight under Part 103 must weigh less than how much empty?
    Show the answer

    254 pounds. Part 103 limits a powered ultralight to under 254 pounds empty weight. Floats and deployable safety devices are not counted. The 155 pound limit is for unpowered ultralights.

  3. What is the maximum fuel capacity of a powered Part 103 ultralight?
    Show the answer

    5 U.S. gallons. Part 103 says a powered ultralight has a fuel capacity not exceeding 5 U.S. gallons. It is a limit on the tank size, not just on what you put in it.

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  1. Which certificates must you hold to fly a legal Part 103 ultralight?
  2. A powered ultralight under Part 103 must weigh less than how much empty?
  3. What is the maximum fuel capacity of a powered Part 103 ultralight?
  4. At full power in level flight, a powered ultralight may not exceed what speed?
  5. What is the maximum power-off stall speed for a powered ultralight?
  6. How many people may a Part 103 ultralight vehicle carry?
  7. What kind of flying may a Part 103 ultralight be used for?
  8. When may you normally operate a Part 103 ultralight?
  9. Which two conditions allow an ultralight to fly 30 minutes before sunrise or after sunset?
  10. Who has the right-of-way over an ultralight in flight?
  11. A powered ultralight and an unpowered ultralight meet. Who must yield?
  12. Where is it illegal to fly an ultralight under Part 103?
  13. To fly an ultralight in Class B, C or D airspace, what do you need?
  14. How can an ultralight pilot legally enter a prohibited or restricted area?
  15. Can an ultralight fly in or above clouds with no view of the ground?
  16. In Class G at or below 1,200 feet AGL, what weather minimums apply to ultralights?
  17. What flight visibility must an ultralight have in Class E below 10,000 feet MSL?
  18. What do you need for an ultralight operation that deviates from Part 103?
  19. When is dropping an object from an ultralight prohibited under Part 103?
  20. Which items are excluded from the 254 pound empty weight limit of a powered ultralight?
  21. Must a Part 103 ultralight be registered or carry N-number markings?
  22. What is the minimum age to earn a sport pilot certificate for an airplane?
  23. A sport pilot without an FAA medical certificate may use what instead?
  24. A sport pilot flies a four-seat airplane. How many people may be aboard?
  25. A sport pilot shares flight costs with a passenger. What is the rule?
  26. What altitude limit applies to a sport pilot acting as pilot in command?
  27. A sport pilot may not fly when flight or surface visibility is less than what?
  28. In which airspace may a sport pilot NOT act as pilot in command at all?
  29. How many night takeoffs and full-stop landings does a sport pilot night endorsement require?
  30. How many full-stop landings at a towered airport does a sport pilot need for the airspace endorsement?
  31. After MOSAIC, what is the maximum VS1 stall speed of an airplane a sport pilot may fly?
  32. What does a sport pilot need to fly a retractable-gear airplane after MOSAIC?
  33. On what date did MOSAIC's sport pilot rule changes take effect?
  34. When did MOSAIC's light-sport aircraft certification rules take effect?
  35. What did MOSAIC do to the regulatory definition of light-sport aircraft in 14 CFR 1.1?
  36. MOSAIC caps the maximum speed of light-sport category aircraft at what?
  37. What is the minimum flight time for a sport pilot certificate in a single-engine airplane?
  38. What is the minimum flight time for a sport pilot certificate in a powered parachute?
  39. How many hours of glider flight time does a sport pilot glider certificate need without prior heavier-than-air time?
  40. How long must the solo cross-country flight be for a weight-shift-control sport pilot certificate?
  41. How long must the solo cross-country be for an airplane sport pilot certificate?
  42. To add another sport pilot category or class, who must give the proficiency check?
  43. Where are a sport pilot's category and class privileges recorded?
  44. How long is a sport pilot certificate valid?
  45. Under which CFR section does a factory-built light-sport category aircraft get its special airworthiness certificate?
  46. How often must an aircraft certificated in the light-sport category get a condition inspection?
  47. A light-sport category aircraft used for paid flight training needs an inspection within how many hours?
  48. What is the minimum age for a repairman certificate (light-sport)?
  49. Which limit does every sport pilot certificate carry?
  50. In steady flight, the sum of thrust, drag, lift and weight acting on an aircraft equals what?
  51. A wing always stalls at the same what, regardless of weight, airspeed or density altitude?
  52. According to Bernoulli's principle, when air moves faster, its pressure does what?
  53. Compared with straight-and-level flight, the stall speed in a level turn is what?
  54. Ground effect is caused by what?
  55. Ailerons control roll about which axis of the aircraft?
  56. Adverse yaw is most noticeable at what airspeeds?
  57. A 1 inch change in the altimeter setting changes the indicated altitude by about how much?
  58. On an airspeed indicator, what does the green arc show?
  59. What is standard sea level pressure in inches of mercury?
  60. What defines a cold front?
  61. In the Northern Hemisphere, which way does wind rotate around a low-pressure system?
  62. Air temperature that rises with altitude, instead of falling, is called what?
  63. Fog or low cloud is most likely when the temperature and dew point are what?
  64. Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for what?
  65. A headwind equal to 10 percent of takeoff airspeed shortens takeoff distance by about how much?
  66. In a METAR, 'BKN' means the sky is covered by how much cloud?
  67. Class C airspace has an inner surface core with what radius?
  68. On a sectional chart, a magenta vignette shows Class E airspace starting at what height?
  69. Military Operations Areas exist to separate military training from what kind of traffic?
  70. Under basic VFR rules, Class G at or below 1,200 feet AGL by day needs how much visibility?
  71. In Class E below 10,000 feet MSL, VFR requires staying how far below clouds?
  72. Propeller-driven aircraft normally enter the traffic pattern at how high above ground level?
  73. A runway aligned with a magnetic heading of 270 degrees is numbered what?
  74. What color is a taxiway centerline marking?
  75. What color are taxiway edge lights?
  76. Keying the mic 7 times within 5 seconds sets pilot-controlled runway lighting to what?
  77. When taking off behind a larger aircraft, where should you rotate compared with its rotation point?
  78. Two aircraft approach head-on. What must each pilot do?
  79. When one aircraft overtakes another, which one has the right-of-way?
  80. Two aircraft are approaching an airport to land. Which one has the right-of-way?
  81. Which frequency should you use to self-announce where there is no tower, FSS or UNICOM?
  82. Which spoken signal declares an urgency condition rather than a distress condition?
  83. Which transponder code is the general emergency code?
  84. Inbound pilots should monitor the CTAF starting from about how far out?
  85. Carbon monoxide from engine exhaust has what color and odor?
  86. Under 14 CFR 91.17, how long after drinking alcohol must you wait before acting as a crewmember?
  87. How long in total darkness do the eyes need for complete dark adaptation?
  88. After scuba diving that required a controlled ascent, how long should you wait before flying?
  89. Which kinds of medications can seriously degrade pilot performance?
  90. In the IMSAFE pilot checklist, what does the 'S' stand for?
  91. Which hazardous attitude has the antidote 'Not so fast. Think first.'?
  92. In the 3P model for aeronautical decision-making, what are the three Ps?
  93. How does a weight-shift-control aircraft mainly control its flight?
  94. To recover from a steep descending spiral in a weight-shift aircraft, what do you do with the control bar?
  95. During a powered parachute takeoff, what should the pilot confirm about the canopy?
  96. Which stage of a thunderstorm is the most violent?
  97. Class D airspace generally extends up to how high above the airport elevation?
  98. In the PAVE risk checklist, what does the 'V' stand for?
  99. How often must a pilot complete a flight review to act as pilot in command?